Please see the attached files for you sourcing. These should be the ONLY items used for this essay.
Is the United States in a hegemonic decline? It’s difficult to argue absolutely either way but do your best. No “middle of the road” answers allowed!
For a definition of “hegemony,” see the web source https://doc-research.org/2018/08/hegemony-conceptual-theoretical-analysis/
Schmidt argues that two definitions of hegemony work together as one:
“The first is the notion that hegemony entails overwhelming or preponderant material power. The second is the idea that hegemony involves the exercise of some form of leadership, including domination, over others” (Schmidt 2018).
Commonly, in the IR scholarship, hegemony means an overwhelming preponderance of power – military, economic, political, cultural. There have been 5 hegemonic periods in modern history: Spain and Portugal in the 16th century; the Netherlands in the 17th century; Britain in the 18th and 19th centuries; and the US in the 20th and 21st centuries. Each hegemonic period ended with a global war (the Thirty Years’ War, the Wars of Spanish Succession, the Napoleonic Wars, and World Wars I and II).
Most long-cycle theorists argue that 100 years is about the length of hegemony in the modern era. It takes a fundamental shift to make things last longer than 100 years. The British were able to achieve it because they industrialized fully in the 19th century – as well as carved up Africa and used India for their natural resources. US hegemony really did not begin until after 1945, although the US had positioned itself financially to take over the lead economic role from the British during and after World War I. It was that “leadership” part of Schmidt’s definition that made the difference for US hegemony.
Provide an example from a current event to illustrate your answer.
