1. Explain the characteristics of fecal matter from a colonoscopy and an ileostomy.
2. When performing ostomy care the nurse knows that the device should be changed based on what factor?
3. When giving a large volume enema the nurse knows that instilling the solution is done through gravity. Explain the procedure.
4. Changing a wound dressing the main goal is to prevent what?
5. Collecting a wound culture requires that the nurse does what?
6. Your patient is discharged home with a Jackson-Pratt drain. The drain is emptied when and how often and what is noted about the characteristics of the drainage?
7. What are the steps in wound irrigation?
8. What are the signs of proper tube placement and appropriate absorption of tube feeding?
9. After bolus tube feeding the nurse should follow with how much water and what position should the patient be in when he/she is done, and why?
10. When doing tube feedings the nurse knows that the feeding tube is in the abdomen, when he/she hears what sound or aspirates content. What range is the PH in for gastric content?
11. The nurse needs to prepare a diet that will promote wound healing and tissue repair. What types of food would be on it?
12. When calculating urinary output the nurse knows that the intake should equal the output and that he/she should provide what items for urine collection?
13. If a patient is on 24 hour urine collection, when does it start and when does it stop? How is the urine stored? When does urine go to the lab?
14. If a patient is on 24 hour urine collection, when does it start and when does it stop? How is the urine stored? When does urine go to the lab?
15. When inserting an indwelling Foley catheter, the nurse uses strict sterile technique. Under what conditions would a nurse stop the procedure and start
over?
16. What safety measures should the nurse employ prior to moving, transferring, or assisting a patient from the bed?
17. A patient that is confined to bed should be turned. How often and what other measures should you use to prevent pressure injuries?
18. To move a patient up in bed what is it that the nurse does to prevent injuries to her and others?
19. To shave a patient you should check this chart for the use of what medications and why?
20. Oral care for a dependent person is not the same as for an independent person. What are the deferences and similarities?
21. When would you give a full bed bath to your patient?
22. How would you identify the stages of pressure injuries?
23. What are observable signs and symptoms of infection?
24. Conduct a physical assessment in a systematic manner.
25. What is the order in which you would auscultate a patients abdomen?
26. What is the order for abdominal assessment?
27. Hair, skin, and nails are observed by the nurse to assist in determining a persons overall health status. What signs and symptoms would you observe if these things were not healthy?
28. Describe the sequence and give the rationale for putting on and taking off PPE.
29. State the conditions when a sterile field will no longer be sterile.
30. Compare and contrast factors that increase or decrease body temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure.
31. Before a patient can go to surgery the nursery is responsible for patient teaching. What things will you teach your patient prior to surgery?
32. When applying a mummy restraint who does it best serve and why?
33. What are the advantages or disadvantages of using a safety waist restraints?
34. When should you place a patient in restraints and what are the rules for use of physical restraints (i.e. documentation, time, and site for tying).
35. What things appear on a fall prevention list?
36. When a patient is confined to bed what type of aids can help with circulation?
37. When suctioning a tracheostomy tube, the patient is observed or assessed for what signs and symptoms?
38. A patient needs to be taught how to use an incentive spirometer. What information would you provide?
39. When is a nasal gastric tube used?
40. Conduct a physical assessment in a systematic manner. (Head-to-toe)
Note: The questions must be completed no less than 75 words each.
