Then, read the following posts about “Neo-Sindarin”:
https://middangeard.org.uk/aglardh/node/84
As all of these sources attest to, there is no real Sindarin or Quenya, and so the Lord of the Rings movies had to make some hard decisions.
In a 5-7 sentence post, please respond to the following prompt:
Does the fact that there is no complete, consistent Sindarin take away from the language used in the movies? In what ways might it be problematic that one particular Neo-Sindarin was chosen by the movies? Does Sindarin really qualify as a language if no one can really use it?